18 exam-style problems with worked solutions and the FE Reference Handbook page for each. Pick an answer to check it. No account needed.
Q1A round tensile specimen has an original diameter of 12.8mm. After fracture, the diameter at the neck is measured as 9.5mm. What is the percent reduction in area (a measure of ductility)?
Worked solution
Percent reduction in area compares the cross-sectional areas, not the diameters. Because area scales with the square of the diameter, %RA=(1−(df/d0)2)×100=(1−(9.5/12.8)2)×100=44.9%. The 25.8% choice uses the diameter ratio reduction (1−df/d0) directly without squaring -- the classic mistake of treating area like a linear dimension. The 55.1% choice reports the remaining area fraction (df/d0)2 instead of the reduction. The 74.2% choice is just the diameter ratio df/d0 expressed as a percent.
Reduction in area uses cross-sectional areas, which scale as diameter squared:
%RA=(1−A0Af)×100=(1−d02df2)×100
Substitute the diameters:
%RA=(1−12.829.52)×100=(1−0.551)×100
Result:
%RA=44.9%
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 130
Q2During a tensile test, a specimen reaches an engineering strain of ε=0.25 just before necking. What is the corresponding true strain?
Worked solution
True strain accounts for the continuously changing gauge length, so it is found with a natural log: εT=ln(1+ε)=ln(1.25)=0.223. True strain is slightly smaller than engineering strain in tension. The 0.250 choice just reuses the engineering strain, ignoring the conversion. The 0.288 choice takes ln(1−ε)=ln(0.75) and drops the sign -- using the wrong sign inside the log. The -1.386 choice takes ln(ε)=ln(0.25), forgetting the 1 + inside the logarithm.
True strain relationship:
εT=ln(1+ε)
Substitute the engineering strain:
εT=ln(1+0.25)=ln(1.25)
Result:
εT=0.223
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 119
Q3A bridge hanger is subjected to a cyclic axial load that produces a maximum stress of σmax=180MPa and a minimum stress of σmin=−60MPa (compression). What is the stress ratio R for this loading?
Worked solution
The stress ratio is R=σmin/σmax=−60/180=−0.33. The negative sign is essential -- it tells you the loading reverses into compression. The +0.33 choice drops the sign on the compressive minimum stress, a very common error. The -3.0 choice inverts the ratio, computing σmax/σmin. The +0.67 choice computes a mean- or amplitude-based quantity instead of the defined stress ratio.
Stress ratio definition:
R=σmaxσmin
Substitute, keeping the negative sign on the compressive minimum:
R=180−60=−0.33
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 122
Q4A wide steel plate contains a central (internal) through-crack with a total length of 2a=8mm. The plate is loaded to a uniform tensile stress of 300MPa at the point of fracture. Using Y=1.0 for an internal crack, what is the fracture toughness KIC of the steel?
Worked solution
For an internal crack the crack length a is HALF the total length: a=8/2=4mm=0.004m. Then KIC=Yσπa=1.0×300×π×0.004=33.6MPa⋅m1/2. The 47.6MPa⋅m1/2 choice uses the full 2a=8mm as a -- forgetting to halve the total length for an internal crack. The 19.0MPa⋅m1/2 choice drops the π inside the square root. The 37.0MPa⋅m1/2 choice uses Y=1.1 (edge crack value) instead of Y=1.0 for an internal crack.
Internal crack: use half the total length:
a=22a=28=4mm=0.004m
Apply the fracture toughness formula with Y=1.0:
KIC=Yσπa=1.0×300×π×0.004
Evaluate:
KIC=300×0.1121=33.6MPa⋅m1/2
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 123
Q5In a binary alloy phase diagram at temperature T, the tie line gives a solid (α) composition of 18 wt% B and a liquid composition of 55 wt% B. The overall alloy composition is 35 wt% B. What is the weight fraction of the SOLID phase?
Worked solution
The lever rule gives the fraction of a phase using the OPPOSITE lever arm over the total tie-line length. For the solid fraction: fα=(xL−x0)/(xL−xα)=(55−35)/(55−18)=20/37=0.54. The 0.46 choice swaps the arms and actually computes the LIQUID fraction (x0−xα)/(xL−xα). The 0.64 choice divides x0/xL=35/55 instead of using the lever rule. The 0.51 choice divides xα/x0=18/35, another incorrect shortcut.
Identify tie-line endpoints at temperature T:
xα=18,xL=55,x0=35
Lever rule for the solid (α) fraction (opposite arm):
fα=xL−xαxL−x0=55−1855−35=3720
Result:
fα=0.54
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 128
Q6A copper rod is cold-drawn through a die, reducing its diameter from 12mm to 9mm. What is the percent cold work?
Worked solution
Percent cold work is based on the reduction in cross-sectional area: %CW=(1−(df/d0)2)×100=(1−(9/12)2)×100=43.8%. The 25.0% choice uses the diameter ratio without squaring -- treating area as if it were linear. The 56.3% choice reports the remaining area fraction (df/d0)2 rather than the reduction. The 33.3% choice computes the diameter reduction relative to the final diameter (12-9)/9, a confused ratio.
Percent cold work uses cross-sectional areas:
%CW=A0A0−Af×100=(1−d02df2)×100
Substitute the diameters:
%CW=(1−12292)×100=(1−0.5625)×100
Result:
%CW=43.8%
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117
Q7A mix design specifies a cement content of 380 kg/m3 and a target water-cement ratio of 0.45. How much water (by weight) should the mix contain per cubic meter?
Worked solution
Rearrange the definition W/C=water/cement to solve for water: W=(W/C)×C=0.45×380=171 kg/m3. The 844 kg/m^3 choice divides cement by the ratio (380/0.45) instead of multiplying. The 209 kg/m^3 choice multiplies by the complement 0.55 instead of 0.45. The 380 kg/m^3 choice just copies the cement content, forgetting to apply the W/C ratio at all.
Rearrange the water-cement ratio:
W=(W/C)×C
Substitute:
W=0.45×380=171 kg/m3
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126
Q8A mix design calls for 185 kg/m3 of batch (mixing) water assuming saturated-surface-dry sand. The actual sand is wet, carrying 4% free surface moisture, and the batch uses 700 kg/m3 of sand. To keep the effective water-cement ratio on target, how much water should be ADDED at the batch plant?
Worked solution
Wet sand already carries free water into the mix, so you must subtract that free moisture from the batch water to avoid raising the effective W/C. The free water on the sand is 0.04×700=28 kg/m3. The water to add is therefore 185−28=157 kg/m3. The 213 option ADDS the free moisture instead of subtracting it -- double-counting the water and pushing W/C too high. The 178 option takes 4% of the batch water (0.04×185=7.4, giving 185−7.4≈178) instead of 4% of the sand weight. The 185 option ignores the aggregate moisture correction entirely.
Free water carried by the wet sand:
Wfree=0.04×700=28 kg/m3
Subtract the free moisture from the design batch water:
Wadd=185−28
Result:
Wadd=157 kg/m3
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126
Q9A normal-weight concrete has a specified compressive strength of fc′=4,000 psi. Using the relationship for the modulus of rupture fr=7.5fc′ (psi), the estimated flexural tensile strength is most nearly:
Worked solution
The modulus of rupture estimates concrete tensile (flexural) strength: fr=7.5fc′=7.54,000=7.5×63.2=474 psi. The 30,000 psi choice forgets the square root and computes 7.5×4,000. The 170 psi choice takes the square root of the whole product 7.5×4,000 instead of multiplying by the root of fc′. The 400 psi choice uses the rough 10% rule of thumb (0.10×4,000) rather than the modulus-of-rupture formula the problem specifies.
Modulus of rupture relationship:
fr=7.5fc′
Take the square root of the compressive strength:
4,000=63.2
Multiply:
fr=7.5×63.2=474 psi
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126
Q10A structural concrete is specified at fc′=4,500 psi at 28 days. For Type I Portland cement under continuous moist curing, 7-day strength is approximately 70% of the 28-day strength. What 7-day cylinder break strength should the engineer expect?
Worked solution
Here we go forward from 28-day to 7-day strength, so we MULTIPLY by 70%: 0.70×4,500=3,150 psi. The 6,430 psi option divides by 0.70 -- the operation you use to go from 7-day up to 28-day, applied in the wrong direction. The 1,350 psi option multiplies by the complement 0.30 instead of 0.70. The 4,500 psi option ignores the curing-time fraction entirely.
7-day strength is 70% of the 28-day strength:
fc,7′=0.70×fc,28′
Substitute:
fc,7′=0.70×4,500=3,150 psi
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126
Q11A unidirectional composite is 50% glass fiber (Ef=72GPa) and 50% epoxy matrix (Em=3.5GPa) by volume. What is the elastic modulus when the composite is loaded PERPENDICULAR to the fibers?
Worked solution
Perpendicular loading is the isostress (Reuss) case, which uses the reciprocal rule: 1/Ec=ff/Ef+fm/Em=0.5/72+0.5/3.5=0.1498, so Ec=6.68GPa. The compliant matrix dominates. The 37.8 GPa option mistakenly uses the parallel (isostrain) additive rule 0.5(72) + 0.5(3.5). The 13.4 GPa option forgets the reciprocal step and mishandles the inversion. The 3.50 GPa option assumes the matrix alone controls, ignoring the fiber contribution entirely.
Isostress (perpendicular) model:
Ec1=Efff+Emfm
Substitute:
Ec1=720.5+3.50.5=0.00694+0.14286=0.1498
Invert:
Ec=0.14981=6.68GPa
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 124
Q12A fiber-reinforced composite has a measured density of 1,800 kg/m3. The fibers have ρf=2,600 kg/m3 and the matrix has ρm=1,150 kg/m3. What is the volume fraction of fibers?
Worked solution
Start from the rule of mixtures ρc=ffρf+(1−ff)ρm and solve for ff: ff=(ρc−ρm)/(ρf−ρm)=(1,800−1,150)/(2,600−1,150)=650/1,450=0.45. The 0.25 choice divides the numerator by the fiber density (650/2,600) instead of by the density difference. The 0.69 choice divides the composite density by the fiber density (1,800/2,600). The 0.55 choice is the matrix volume fraction (1−ff) -- the right setup but the wrong phase reported.
Rule of mixtures with fm=1−ff:
ρc=ffρf+(1−ff)ρm
Solve for the fiber fraction:
ff=ρf−ρmρc−ρm=2,600−1,1501,800−1,150
Result:
ff=1,450650=0.45
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 124
Q13A buried steel pipeline is electrically connected to magnesium blocks installed alongside it. In this galvanic couple, which metal acts as the cathode, and what happens to it?
Worked solution
Magnesium is far more active (anodic) than steel in the galvanic series, so the magnesium becomes the anode and corrodes sacrificially, while the steel becomes the cathode and is protected. This is exactly how sacrificial-anode cathodic protection works. The "magnesium is the cathode and is protected" option reverses the roles -- magnesium is the anode, not the cathode. The "both metals are anodes" option is wrong because a galvanic couple always has one anode and one cathode, not two anodes. The "steel is the anode and is protected" option contradicts itself: the anode is the one that corrodes, so steel cannot be both the anode and protected.
Magnesium sits well above steel on the activity (galvanic) series -- it is the more active metal.
The more active metal becomes the anode and oxidizes (corrodes) sacrificially.
Steel therefore becomes the cathode and is protected from corrosion.
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117
Q14Stainless steel resists corrosion far better than plain carbon steel even though both are mostly iron. What is the primary reason stainless steel is corrosion resistant?
Worked solution
Stainless steel contains chromium (typically 10 to 12% or more), which reacts with oxygen to form a very thin, tightly bonded chromium-oxide film. This passive layer blocks further oxidation and re-forms (self-heals) if scratched, which is what makes stainless steel corrosion resistant. The "more noble, never an anode" choice is wrong because stainless steel can still act as an anode in some couples -- its protection is the passive film, not inherent nobility. The "contains no iron" choice is false: stainless steel is mostly iron. The "cathodically protected by an external current" choice describes impressed-current cathodic protection, an external system, not the intrinsic mechanism of stainless steel.
Stainless steel is iron alloyed with a significant amount of chromium.
Chromium reacts with oxygen to form a thin, adherent chromium-oxide passive layer.
This passive film blocks further oxidation and re-forms if damaged, giving corrosion resistance.
FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117
Q15A fine aggregate has a sieve analysis in which the cumulative percent retained on the standard sieves sums to 260%. What is the fineness modulus?
Worked solution
FM = (sum of cumulative percent retained)/100 = 260/100 = 2.60, a typical medium-to-fine sand. The 26.0 choice forgets to divide by 100. The 0.26 choice divides by 1,000. The 3.60 choice adds 1.
Fineness modulus:
FM=100260=2.60
Q16An asphalt mix has voids in the mineral aggregate VMA=16.0% and air voids Va=4.0%. What is the voids filled with asphalt (VFA)?
Worked solution
VFA = 100 × (VMA − Va)/VMA = 100 × (16.0 − 4.0)/16.0 = 100 × 12.0/16.0 = 75.0%. The 25.0% option is the air-filled fraction (Va/VMA). The 12.0% option is the raw difference (VMA − Va). The 80.0% option is an incorrect rounding/ratio.
Asphalt-filled voids:
VMA−Va=16.0−4.0=12.0%
VFA:
VFA=100×16.012.0=75.0%
Q17A coarse aggregate sample weighs 965 g oven-dry (A), 1,000 g saturated-surface-dry in air (B), and 610 g submerged (C). What is the bulk (oven-dry) specific gravity?
Worked solution
Bulk OD SG = A/(B − C) = 965/(1,000 − 610) = 965/390 = 2.47. The 2.56 option uses SSD weight in the numerator (bulk SSD SG = 1,000/390 = 2.56). The 2.72 option uses apparent SG = A/(A − C) = 965/355 = 2.72. The 1.58 option inverts part of the ratio.
Volume term:
B−C=1,000−610=390 g
Bulk oven-dry SG:
Gsb=390965=2.47
Q18Green timber is dried below its fiber saturation point (about 30% moisture content). What happens to the wood as it continues to dry?
Worked solution
Above the fiber saturation point, free water in the cell cavities leaves first with little effect on size or strength. Below the FSP (~30% MC), water leaves the cell walls, so the wood shrinks and gains strength and stiffness. The "swells and loses strength" option reverses both effects. The "dimensions and strength stay constant" option ignores the change below FSP. The "shrinks but loses strength" option gets the strength direction wrong.
Above FSP: only free water leaves, with minimal dimensional/strength change.
Below FSP: bound water leaves the cell walls.
Result: the wood shrinks and gains strength and stiffness.
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