FE4RACCOONS
FE Civil · Chapter 8 · 5–8 questions on the exam

FE Civil Materials practice problems

18 exam-style problems with worked solutions and the FE Reference Handbook page for each. Pick an answer to check it. No account needed.

Q1A round tensile specimen has an original diameter of 12.8 mm12.8\,\text{mm}. After fracture, the diameter at the neck is measured as 9.5 mm9.5\,\text{mm}. What is the percent reduction in area (a measure of ductility)?

Worked solution

Percent reduction in area compares the cross-sectional areas, not the diameters. Because area scales with the square of the diameter, %RA=(1−(df/d0)2)×100=(1−(9.5/12.8)2)×100=44.9%\%RA = \left(1 - (d_f/d_0)^2\right)\times 100 = (1 - (9.5/12.8)^2)\times 100 = 44.9\%. The 25.8% choice uses the diameter ratio reduction (1−df/d0)(1 - d_f/d_0) directly without squaring -- the classic mistake of treating area like a linear dimension. The 55.1% choice reports the remaining area fraction (df/d0)2(d_f/d_0)^2 instead of the reduction. The 74.2% choice is just the diameter ratio df/d0d_f/d_0 expressed as a percent.

  1. Reduction in area uses cross-sectional areas, which scale as diameter squared:
    %RA=(1−AfA0)×100=(1−df2d02)×100\%RA = \left(1 - \frac{A_f}{A_0}\right)\times 100 = \left(1 - \frac{d_f^2}{d_0^2}\right)\times 100
  2. Substitute the diameters:
    %RA=(1−9.5212.82)×100=(1−0.551)×100\%RA = \left(1 - \frac{9.5^2}{12.8^2}\right)\times 100 = (1 - 0.551)\times 100
  3. Result:
    %RA=44.9%\%RA = 44.9\%

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 130

Q2During a tensile test, a specimen reaches an engineering strain of ε=0.25\varepsilon = 0.25 just before necking. What is the corresponding true strain?

Worked solution

True strain accounts for the continuously changing gauge length, so it is found with a natural log: εT=ln⁡(1+ε)=ln⁡(1.25)=0.223\varepsilon_T = \ln(1 + \varepsilon) = \ln(1.25) = 0.223. True strain is slightly smaller than engineering strain in tension. The 0.250 choice just reuses the engineering strain, ignoring the conversion. The 0.288 choice takes ln⁡(1−ε)=ln⁡(0.75)\ln(1 - \varepsilon) = \ln(0.75) and drops the sign -- using the wrong sign inside the log. The -1.386 choice takes ln⁡(ε)=ln⁡(0.25)\ln(\varepsilon) = \ln(0.25), forgetting the 1 + inside the logarithm.

  1. True strain relationship:
    εT=ln⁡(1+ε)\varepsilon_T = \ln(1 + \varepsilon)
  2. Substitute the engineering strain:
    εT=ln⁡(1+0.25)=ln⁡(1.25)\varepsilon_T = \ln(1 + 0.25) = \ln(1.25)
  3. Result:
    εT=0.223\varepsilon_T = 0.223

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 119

Q3A bridge hanger is subjected to a cyclic axial load that produces a maximum stress of σmax⁡=180 MPa\sigma_{\max} = 180\,\text{MPa} and a minimum stress of σmin⁡=−60 MPa\sigma_{\min} = -60\,\text{MPa} (compression). What is the stress ratio RR for this loading?

Worked solution

The stress ratio is R=σmin⁡/σmax⁡=−60/180=−0.33R = \sigma_{\min}/\sigma_{\max} = -60/180 = -0.33. The negative sign is essential -- it tells you the loading reverses into compression. The +0.33 choice drops the sign on the compressive minimum stress, a very common error. The -3.0 choice inverts the ratio, computing σmax⁡/σmin⁡\sigma_{\max}/\sigma_{\min}. The +0.67 choice computes a mean- or amplitude-based quantity instead of the defined stress ratio.

  1. Stress ratio definition:
    R=σmin⁡σmax⁡R = \frac{\sigma_{\min}}{\sigma_{\max}}
  2. Substitute, keeping the negative sign on the compressive minimum:
    R=−60180=−0.33R = \frac{-60}{180} = -0.33

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 122

Q4A wide steel plate contains a central (internal) through-crack with a total length of 2a=8 mm2a = 8\,\text{mm}. The plate is loaded to a uniform tensile stress of 300 MPa300\,\text{MPa} at the point of fracture. Using Y=1.0Y = 1.0 for an internal crack, what is the fracture toughness KICK_{IC} of the steel?

Worked solution

For an internal crack the crack length aa is HALF the total length: a=8/2=4 mm=0.004 ma = 8/2 = 4\,\text{mm} = 0.004\,\text{m}. Then KIC=Yσπa=1.0×300×π×0.004=33.6 MPa⋅m1/2K_{IC} = Y\sigma\sqrt{\pi a} = 1.0 \times 300 \times \sqrt{\pi \times 0.004} = 33.6\,\text{MPa}\cdot\text{m}^{1/2}. The 47.6 MPa⋅m1/247.6\,\text{MPa}\cdot\text{m}^{1/2} choice uses the full 2a=8 mm2a = 8\,\text{mm} as aa -- forgetting to halve the total length for an internal crack. The 19.0 MPa⋅m1/219.0\,\text{MPa}\cdot\text{m}^{1/2} choice drops the π\pi inside the square root. The 37.0 MPa⋅m1/237.0\,\text{MPa}\cdot\text{m}^{1/2} choice uses Y=1.1Y = 1.1 (edge crack value) instead of Y=1.0Y = 1.0 for an internal crack.

  1. Internal crack: use half the total length:
    a=2a2=82=4 mm=0.004 ma = \frac{2a}{2} = \frac{8}{2} = 4\,\text{mm} = 0.004\,\text{m}
  2. Apply the fracture toughness formula with Y=1.0Y = 1.0:
    KIC=Yσπa=1.0×300×π×0.004K_{IC} = Y\sigma\sqrt{\pi a} = 1.0 \times 300 \times \sqrt{\pi \times 0.004}
  3. Evaluate:
    KIC=300×0.1121=33.6 MPa⋅m1/2K_{IC} = 300 \times 0.1121 = 33.6\,\text{MPa}\cdot\text{m}^{1/2}

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 123

Q5In a binary alloy phase diagram at temperature TT, the tie line gives a solid (α\alpha) composition of 18 wt% B18 \text{ wt\% B} and a liquid composition of 55 wt% B55 \text{ wt\% B}. The overall alloy composition is 35 wt% B35 \text{ wt\% B}. What is the weight fraction of the SOLID phase?

Worked solution

The lever rule gives the fraction of a phase using the OPPOSITE lever arm over the total tie-line length. For the solid fraction: fα=(xL−x0)/(xL−xα)=(55−35)/(55−18)=20/37=0.54f_\alpha = (x_L - x_0)/(x_L - x_\alpha) = (55 - 35)/(55 - 18) = 20/37 = 0.54. The 0.46 choice swaps the arms and actually computes the LIQUID fraction (x0−xα)/(xL−xα)(x_0 - x_\alpha)/(x_L - x_\alpha). The 0.64 choice divides x0/xL=35/55x_0/x_L = 35/55 instead of using the lever rule. The 0.51 choice divides xα/x0=18/35x_\alpha/x_0 = 18/35, another incorrect shortcut.

  1. Identify tie-line endpoints at temperature TT:
    xα=18,xL=55,x0=35x_\alpha = 18,\quad x_L = 55,\quad x_0 = 35
  2. Lever rule for the solid (α\alpha) fraction (opposite arm):
    fα=xL−x0xL−xα=55−3555−18=2037f_\alpha = \frac{x_L - x_0}{x_L - x_\alpha} = \frac{55 - 35}{55 - 18} = \frac{20}{37}
  3. Result:
    fα=0.54f_\alpha = 0.54

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 128

Q6A copper rod is cold-drawn through a die, reducing its diameter from 12 mm12\,\text{mm} to 9 mm9\,\text{mm}. What is the percent cold work?

Worked solution

Percent cold work is based on the reduction in cross-sectional area: %CW=(1−(df/d0)2)×100=(1−(9/12)2)×100=43.8%\%CW = \left(1 - (d_f/d_0)^2\right)\times 100 = (1 - (9/12)^2)\times 100 = 43.8\%. The 25.0% choice uses the diameter ratio without squaring -- treating area as if it were linear. The 56.3% choice reports the remaining area fraction (df/d0)2(d_f/d_0)^2 rather than the reduction. The 33.3% choice computes the diameter reduction relative to the final diameter (12-9)/9, a confused ratio.

  1. Percent cold work uses cross-sectional areas:
    %CW=A0−AfA0×100=(1−df2d02)×100\%CW = \frac{A_0 - A_f}{A_0}\times 100 = \left(1 - \frac{d_f^2}{d_0^2}\right)\times 100
  2. Substitute the diameters:
    %CW=(1−92122)×100=(1−0.5625)×100\%CW = \left(1 - \frac{9^2}{12^2}\right)\times 100 = (1 - 0.5625)\times 100
  3. Result:
    %CW=43.8%\%CW = 43.8\%

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117

Q7A mix design specifies a cement content of 380 kg/m3380 \text{ kg/m}^3 and a target water-cement ratio of 0.45. How much water (by weight) should the mix contain per cubic meter?

Worked solution

Rearrange the definition W/C=water/cementW/C = \text{water}/\text{cement} to solve for water: W=(W/C)×C=0.45×380=171 kg/m3W = (W/C)\times C = 0.45 \times 380 = 171 \text{ kg/m}^3. The 844 kg/m^3 choice divides cement by the ratio (380/0.45) instead of multiplying. The 209 kg/m^3 choice multiplies by the complement 0.55 instead of 0.45. The 380 kg/m^3 choice just copies the cement content, forgetting to apply the W/C ratio at all.

  1. Rearrange the water-cement ratio:
    W=(W/C)×CW = (W/C)\times C
  2. Substitute:
    W=0.45×380=171 kg/m3W = 0.45 \times 380 = 171 \text{ kg/m}^3

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126

Q8A mix design calls for 185 kg/m3185 \text{ kg/m}^3 of batch (mixing) water assuming saturated-surface-dry sand. The actual sand is wet, carrying 4%4\% free surface moisture, and the batch uses 700 kg/m3700 \text{ kg/m}^3 of sand. To keep the effective water-cement ratio on target, how much water should be ADDED at the batch plant?

Worked solution

Wet sand already carries free water into the mix, so you must subtract that free moisture from the batch water to avoid raising the effective W/C. The free water on the sand is 0.04×700=28 kg/m30.04 \times 700 = 28 \text{ kg/m}^3. The water to add is therefore 185−28=157 kg/m3185 - 28 = 157 \text{ kg/m}^3. The 213 option ADDS the free moisture instead of subtracting it -- double-counting the water and pushing W/C too high. The 178 option takes 4%4\% of the batch water (0.04×185=7.40.04 \times 185 = 7.4, giving 185−7.4≈178185 - 7.4 \approx 178) instead of 4%4\% of the sand weight. The 185 option ignores the aggregate moisture correction entirely.

  1. Free water carried by the wet sand:
    Wfree=0.04×700=28 kg/m3W_{\text{free}} = 0.04 \times 700 = 28 \text{ kg/m}^3
  2. Subtract the free moisture from the design batch water:
    Wadd=185−28W_{\text{add}} = 185 - 28
  3. Result:
    Wadd=157 kg/m3W_{\text{add}} = 157 \text{ kg/m}^3

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126

Q9A normal-weight concrete has a specified compressive strength of fc′=4,000 psif'_c = 4{,}000 \text{ psi}. Using the relationship for the modulus of rupture fr=7.5fc′f_r = 7.5\sqrt{f'_c} (psi), the estimated flexural tensile strength is most nearly:

Worked solution

The modulus of rupture estimates concrete tensile (flexural) strength: fr=7.5fc′=7.54,000=7.5×63.2=474 psif_r = 7.5\sqrt{f'_c} = 7.5\sqrt{4{,}000} = 7.5 \times 63.2 = 474 \text{ psi}. The 30,000 psi choice forgets the square root and computes 7.5×4,0007.5 \times 4{,}000. The 170 psi choice takes the square root of the whole product 7.5×4,000\sqrt{7.5 \times 4{,}000} instead of multiplying by the root of fc′f'_c. The 400 psi choice uses the rough 10% rule of thumb (0.10×4,0000.10 \times 4{,}000) rather than the modulus-of-rupture formula the problem specifies.

  1. Modulus of rupture relationship:
    fr=7.5fc′f_r = 7.5\sqrt{f'_c}
  2. Take the square root of the compressive strength:
    4,000=63.2\sqrt{4{,}000} = 63.2
  3. Multiply:
    fr=7.5×63.2=474 psif_r = 7.5 \times 63.2 = 474 \text{ psi}

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126

Q10A structural concrete is specified at fc′=4,500 psif'_c = 4{,}500 \text{ psi} at 28 days. For Type I Portland cement under continuous moist curing, 7-day strength is approximately 70%70\% of the 28-day strength. What 7-day cylinder break strength should the engineer expect?

Worked solution

Here we go forward from 28-day to 7-day strength, so we MULTIPLY by 70%: 0.70×4,500=3,150 psi0.70 \times 4{,}500 = 3{,}150 \text{ psi}. The 6,430 psi option divides by 0.70 -- the operation you use to go from 7-day up to 28-day, applied in the wrong direction. The 1,350 psi option multiplies by the complement 0.30 instead of 0.70. The 4,500 psi option ignores the curing-time fraction entirely.

  1. 7-day strength is 70% of the 28-day strength:
    fc,7′=0.70×fc,28′f'_{c,7} = 0.70 \times f'_{c,28}
  2. Substitute:
    fc,7′=0.70×4,500=3,150 psif'_{c,7} = 0.70 \times 4{,}500 = 3{,}150 \text{ psi}

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 126

Q11A unidirectional composite is 50%50\% glass fiber (Ef=72 GPaE_f = 72\,\text{GPa}) and 50%50\% epoxy matrix (Em=3.5 GPaE_m = 3.5\,\text{GPa}) by volume. What is the elastic modulus when the composite is loaded PERPENDICULAR to the fibers?

Worked solution

Perpendicular loading is the isostress (Reuss) case, which uses the reciprocal rule: 1/Ec=ff/Ef+fm/Em=0.5/72+0.5/3.5=0.14981/E_c = f_f/E_f + f_m/E_m = 0.5/72 + 0.5/3.5 = 0.1498, so Ec=6.68 GPaE_c = 6.68\,\text{GPa}. The compliant matrix dominates. The 37.8 GPa option mistakenly uses the parallel (isostrain) additive rule 0.5(72) + 0.5(3.5). The 13.4 GPa option forgets the reciprocal step and mishandles the inversion. The 3.50 GPa option assumes the matrix alone controls, ignoring the fiber contribution entirely.

  1. Isostress (perpendicular) model:
    1Ec=ffEf+fmEm\frac{1}{E_c} = \frac{f_f}{E_f} + \frac{f_m}{E_m}
  2. Substitute:
    1Ec=0.572+0.53.5=0.00694+0.14286=0.1498\frac{1}{E_c} = \frac{0.5}{72} + \frac{0.5}{3.5} = 0.00694 + 0.14286 = 0.1498
  3. Invert:
    Ec=10.1498=6.68 GPaE_c = \frac{1}{0.1498} = 6.68\,\text{GPa}

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 124

Q12A fiber-reinforced composite has a measured density of 1,800 kg/m31{,}800 \text{ kg/m}^3. The fibers have ρf=2,600 kg/m3\rho_f = 2{,}600 \text{ kg/m}^3 and the matrix has ρm=1,150 kg/m3\rho_m = 1{,}150 \text{ kg/m}^3. What is the volume fraction of fibers?

Worked solution

Start from the rule of mixtures ρc=ffρf+(1−ff)ρm\rho_c = f_f\rho_f + (1 - f_f)\rho_m and solve for fff_f: ff=(ρc−ρm)/(ρf−ρm)=(1,800−1,150)/(2,600−1,150)=650/1,450=0.45f_f = (\rho_c - \rho_m)/(\rho_f - \rho_m) = (1{,}800 - 1{,}150)/(2{,}600 - 1{,}150) = 650/1{,}450 = 0.45. The 0.25 choice divides the numerator by the fiber density (650/2,600650/2{,}600) instead of by the density difference. The 0.69 choice divides the composite density by the fiber density (1,800/2,6001{,}800/2{,}600). The 0.55 choice is the matrix volume fraction (1−ff)(1 - f_f) -- the right setup but the wrong phase reported.

  1. Rule of mixtures with fm=1−fff_m = 1 - f_f:
    ρc=ffρf+(1−ff)ρm\rho_c = f_f\rho_f + (1 - f_f)\rho_m
  2. Solve for the fiber fraction:
    ff=ρc−ρmρf−ρm=1,800−1,1502,600−1,150f_f = \frac{\rho_c - \rho_m}{\rho_f - \rho_m} = \frac{1{,}800 - 1{,}150}{2{,}600 - 1{,}150}
  3. Result:
    ff=6501,450=0.45f_f = \frac{650}{1{,}450} = 0.45

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 124

Q13A buried steel pipeline is electrically connected to magnesium blocks installed alongside it. In this galvanic couple, which metal acts as the cathode, and what happens to it?

Worked solution

Magnesium is far more active (anodic) than steel in the galvanic series, so the magnesium becomes the anode and corrodes sacrificially, while the steel becomes the cathode and is protected. This is exactly how sacrificial-anode cathodic protection works. The "magnesium is the cathode and is protected" option reverses the roles -- magnesium is the anode, not the cathode. The "both metals are anodes" option is wrong because a galvanic couple always has one anode and one cathode, not two anodes. The "steel is the anode and is protected" option contradicts itself: the anode is the one that corrodes, so steel cannot be both the anode and protected.

  1. Magnesium sits well above steel on the activity (galvanic) series -- it is the more active metal.
  2. The more active metal becomes the anode and oxidizes (corrodes) sacrificially.
  3. Steel therefore becomes the cathode and is protected from corrosion.

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117

Q14Stainless steel resists corrosion far better than plain carbon steel even though both are mostly iron. What is the primary reason stainless steel is corrosion resistant?

Worked solution

Stainless steel contains chromium (typically 10 to 12% or more), which reacts with oxygen to form a very thin, tightly bonded chromium-oxide film. This passive layer blocks further oxidation and re-forms (self-heals) if scratched, which is what makes stainless steel corrosion resistant. The "more noble, never an anode" choice is wrong because stainless steel can still act as an anode in some couples -- its protection is the passive film, not inherent nobility. The "contains no iron" choice is false: stainless steel is mostly iron. The "cathodically protected by an external current" choice describes impressed-current cathodic protection, an external system, not the intrinsic mechanism of stainless steel.

  1. Stainless steel is iron alloyed with a significant amount of chromium.
  2. Chromium reacts with oxygen to form a thin, adherent chromium-oxide passive layer.
  3. This passive film blocks further oxidation and re-forms if damaged, giving corrosion resistance.

FE Reference Handbook 10.6, p. 117

Q15A fine aggregate has a sieve analysis in which the cumulative percent retained on the standard sieves sums to 260%260\%. What is the fineness modulus?

No. 4No. 16No. 50No. 200pancoarsefine
Worked solution

FM = (sum of cumulative percent retained)/100 = 260/100 = 2.60, a typical medium-to-fine sand. The 26.0 choice forgets to divide by 100. The 0.26 choice divides by 1,000. The 3.60 choice adds 1.

  1. Fineness modulus:
    FM=260100=2.60FM = \frac{260}{100} = 2.60

Q16An asphalt mix has voids in the mineral aggregate VMA=16.0%VMA = 16.0\% and air voids Va=4.0%V_a = 4.0\%. What is the voids filled with asphalt (VFA)?

airasphaltaggregateVaVMA
Worked solution

VFA = 100 × (VMA − Va)/VMA = 100 × (16.0 − 4.0)/16.0 = 100 × 12.0/16.0 = 75.0%. The 25.0% option is the air-filled fraction (Va/VMA). The 12.0% option is the raw difference (VMA − Va). The 80.0% option is an incorrect rounding/ratio.

  1. Asphalt-filled voids:
    VMA−Va=16.0−4.0=12.0%VMA - V_a = 16.0 - 4.0 = 12.0\%
  2. VFA:
    VFA=100×12.016.0=75.0%VFA = 100 \times \frac{12.0}{16.0} = 75.0\%

Q17A coarse aggregate sample weighs 965 g965\text{ g} oven-dry (AA), 1,000 g1{,}000\text{ g} saturated-surface-dry in air (BB), and 610 g610\text{ g} submerged (CC). What is the bulk (oven-dry) specific gravity?

Worked solution

Bulk OD SG = A/(B − C) = 965/(1,000 − 610) = 965/390 = 2.47. The 2.56 option uses SSD weight in the numerator (bulk SSD SG = 1,000/390 = 2.56). The 2.72 option uses apparent SG = A/(A − C) = 965/355 = 2.72. The 1.58 option inverts part of the ratio.

  1. Volume term:
    B−C=1,000−610=390 gB - C = 1{,}000 - 610 = 390\text{ g}
  2. Bulk oven-dry SG:
    Gsb=965390=2.47G_{sb} = \frac{965}{390} = 2.47

Q18Green timber is dried below its fiber saturation point (about 30% moisture content). What happens to the wood as it continues to dry?

Worked solution

Above the fiber saturation point, free water in the cell cavities leaves first with little effect on size or strength. Below the FSP (~30% MC), water leaves the cell walls, so the wood shrinks and gains strength and stiffness. The "swells and loses strength" option reverses both effects. The "dimensions and strength stay constant" option ignores the change below FSP. The "shrinks but loses strength" option gets the strength direction wrong.

  1. Above FSP: only free water leaves, with minimal dimensional/strength change.
  2. Below FSP: bound water leaves the cell walls.
  3. Result: the wood shrinks and gains strength and stiffness.

18 problems. Your score shows here as you go.

New to Materials? Start with the FE Civil Materials study guide: what NCEES tests, the key formulas, and the mistakes that cost points.

1,436 more problems like these, completely free

These are 18 of 1,454 problems across all 15 FE Civil chapters, with lessons and progress that remembers what you missed.

Create your free account